I've heard that after Schacht's "privatization" in 1933-1936, german state-owned capital started to grow rapidly. And its amount reached such a point that in 1939 state-owned capital accounted for 1/5 of the country's total capital, and in 1943 1/3.
Is there any truth to this statement? If so, that will be very interesting.
I've heard that after Schacht's "privatization" in 1933-1936, german state-owned capital started to grow rapidly. And its amount reached such a point that in 1939 state-owned capital accounted for 1/5 of the country's total capital, and in 1943 1/3.
Is there any truth to this statement? If so, that will be very interesting.
Can feudalism/medievalism Co exist with fascism?
Hey Zolt, have you read my article on Corporatism ? Id be happy to have your comment.
True fans know this is a repost.