I've heard that after Schacht's "privatization" in 1933-1936, german state-owned capital started to grow rapidly. And its amount reached such a point that in 1939 state-owned capital accounted for 1/5 of the country's total capital, and in 1943 1/3.
Is there any truth to this statement? If so, that will be very interesting.
Privatisation doesnt always mean "expropriation of the people". It sometimes means distribution of properties to the public. Thats the case here, indirectly.
I've heard that after Schacht's "privatization" in 1933-1936, german state-owned capital started to grow rapidly. And its amount reached such a point that in 1939 state-owned capital accounted for 1/5 of the country's total capital, and in 1943 1/3.
Is there any truth to this statement? If so, that will be very interesting.
Privatisation doesnt always mean "expropriation of the people". It sometimes means distribution of properties to the public. Thats the case here, indirectly.
Can feudalism/medievalism Co exist with fascism?
Hey Zolt, have you read my article on Corporatism ? Id be happy to have your comment.
True fans know this is a repost.